![[personal profile]](https://www.dreamwidth.org/img/silk/identity/user.png){kind=small}
Cause and/or effect?
Jan. 31st, 2005 04:32 pmFor consideration:
hypothesis 1: if a religion or philosophy teaches that pleasure is bad, they will also teach that the role of women (and GLBTI people) in society or in the religious heirarchy should be restricted.
hypothesis 2: if a religion or philosophy teaches that the role of women (and GLBTI people) in society or in the religious heirarchy should be restricted, they will also teach that pleasure is bad.
Questions:
Is this correlation valid? How strong (or weak) is it?
How might we account for exceptions?
Is there a causation at work here, or an unidentified third factor?
Does the opposite apply -- in other words, is there a correlation between feminist/egalitarianism and hedonism?
hypothesis 1: if a religion or philosophy teaches that pleasure is bad, they will also teach that the role of women (and GLBTI people) in society or in the religious heirarchy should be restricted.
hypothesis 2: if a religion or philosophy teaches that the role of women (and GLBTI people) in society or in the religious heirarchy should be restricted, they will also teach that pleasure is bad.
Questions:
Is this correlation valid? How strong (or weak) is it?
How might we account for exceptions?
Is there a causation at work here, or an unidentified third factor?
Does the opposite apply -- in other words, is there a correlation between feminist/egalitarianism and hedonism?
